Bob Burridge of the Genevan Institute for Reformed Studies raises some interesting points regarding the baptism of Jesus,
“A priest needed to be properly set aside by the forms of ordination. This was only valid if done by an already properly recognized and authorized priest. John was qualified since he was of Aaron’s tribe, son of Zacharais (Luke 1:5) of the division of Abijah, those charged with temple service (1 Chronicles 24:10). The mode of ordination was also specified in Scripture. Among the things required was the sprinkling with water mentioned in Numbers 8:7. “and thus you shall do to them, for their cleansing, sprinkle purifying water on them …”
It is reasonable to assume that the baptism Jesus was seeking from John fulfilled this requirement of God’s law, and therefore fulfilled all righteousness in preparation for his ministry which was about to begin.
In confirmation of this line of reasoning, we see that when the authority of Jesus was questioned as he cast the money changers out of the temple, he cited his baptism by John. Matthew 21:23 records, “when He had come into the temple, the chief priests and the elders of the people came to Him as He was teaching and said, ‘ By what authority are You doing these things, and who gave You this authority?’” The answer of our Lord in verse 25 is instructive, Jesus answered, “The baptism of John was from what source, from heaven or from men?” The accusers were left with no grounds for complaint that Jesus had abused priestly authority.”
The fact is that the concept of Jesus being immersed in the Jordan by John the Baptist is a completely foreign concept with no biblical precedent whatsoever and contrary to the types of Christ seen in the Old Testament.
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